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the trick part that im seeing here is that āk is a sufficiently large positive constantā means that e^-k ~= 0
i can find the first instance (where i agreed) but i dont remember ever saying that I didnt think you would listen to death grips and i cant find it
It canāt be that dumb can it
I was not gaslighting you I know the second instance existed and I DID confront you about it
i think you have to go through some actual proof stuff still but that should at least highlight the general idea
i changed my mind, this is the best dg song:
i feel like you wouldnt make it up but also i literally cannot find it so
that would presumably be why the integrals converge but i doubt it reveals much other than that
the problem is outright like āthe integrals converge donāt worry about k too hardā
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Actually I donāt think it could help?
main problem Iām having is
ultimately, itās a double integral problem
(f*g) (t) can be represented as the integral from zero to t of f(u) - g(t-u)
meaning itās a double integral problem
so yeah it trends to 0 but the integral is still obviously nonzero and you gotta work for it
anyway if i knew how to do things like this i might not be suffering quite as bad in pdes. good luck!
Have you posted the non-cropped version here
And I can sketch the axis of t and u and try to change the order of integrations and I did that but I ended up just swapping u and t which doesnāt seem right
it didnāt achieve much
maybe weāre taking different kinds of classes because that is absolutely how a problem like this would go in one of my classes
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my other thought is intergrating by parts but that sounds miserable
I showed a and b and my conclusion is a and b are non sequitur to the overall problem
i think part b could actually be useful?